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Subject
Month
7 questions
- Polity & Governance30 Apr 2026
Section 408 of the Companies Act, 2013 deals with the constitution of which body?
- A.National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)
- B.Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO)
- C.Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI)
- D.Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT)
Show solution
Answer: A. National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)
**Section 408** establishes the **NCLT**. **SFIO** is constituted under Section 211. **IBBI** is established under Section 188 of the IBC, 2016. **SAT** is constituted under the SEBI Act, 1992 (Section 15K).
Read source story → - Polity & Governance29 Apr 2026
Which constitutional provisions provide protection in arrest, and what is the D K Basu (1996) ruling?
- A.Only Article 14 applies
- B.Article 22 provides procedural safeguards (right to know grounds; consult legal practitioner; production before nearest magistrate within 24 hours); Articles 21 and 14 add substantive protections; D K Basu vs State of West Bengal (1996) laid down 11 binding guidelines for police regarding arrest and detention to prevent custodial torture, including arrest memo, identity recording, medical examination, and intimation to family
- C.Article 19 alone covers arrest
- D.No constitutional safeguards exist
Show solution
Answer: B. Article 22 provides procedural safeguards (right to know grounds; consult legal practitioner; production before nearest magistrate within 24 hours); Articles 21 and 14 add substantive protections; D K Basu vs State of West Bengal (1996) laid down 11 binding guidelines for police regarding arrest and detention to prevent custodial torture, including arrest memo, identity recording, medical examination, and intimation to family
**Article 22** of the Constitution provides procedural safeguards in arrest: right to be informed of grounds, right to consult legal practitioner, and production before nearest magistrate within 24 hours (excluding journey time). **Article 21** provides substantive due-process protection (right to life and personal liberty), and **Article 14** provides equality before law. The Supreme Court's landmark ruling in **D K Basu vs State of West Bengal (1996)** laid down **11 binding guidelines** for police arrests and detentions to prevent custodial abuse — including arrest memo, identity recording, medical examination, and intimation to family. UAPA's **Section 43D(5)** further raises the bar for bail.
Read source story → - Polity & Governance29 Apr 2026
What is the constitutional and statutory framework for the right to education in India?
- A.Only Directive Principle Article 45 applies
- B.Constitutional foundation: Article 21A (inserted by 86th Constitutional Amendment Act 2002, effective 1 April 2010) makes free and compulsory education a fundamental right for children aged 6-14; Article 45 (DPSP, amended 2002) directs State to provide early childhood care below 6; Article 51A(k) makes it a fundamental duty of parents to provide education; statutory operationalisation through RTE Act 2009 (effective 1 April 2010); Section 12(1)(c) mandates 25% quota in private unaided schools; Article 30 exempts unaided minority schools (per Pramati 2014)
- C.Only the RTE Act 2009 applies; no constitutional basis
- D.Education is a State subject only
Show solution
Answer: B. Constitutional foundation: Article 21A (inserted by 86th Constitutional Amendment Act 2002, effective 1 April 2010) makes free and compulsory education a fundamental right for children aged 6-14; Article 45 (DPSP, amended 2002) directs State to provide early childhood care below 6; Article 51A(k) makes it a fundamental duty of parents to provide education; statutory operationalisation through RTE Act 2009 (effective 1 April 2010); Section 12(1)(c) mandates 25% quota in private unaided schools; Article 30 exempts unaided minority schools (per Pramati 2014)
The right to education in India has a **layered constitutional and statutory architecture**: **Article 21A** (inserted by 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002; effective 1 April 2010) makes free and compulsory education a **fundamental right for children aged 6-14**. **Article 45** (DPSP) was amended to direct the State to provide early childhood care for children **below 6**. **Article 51A(k)** makes it a **fundamental duty of parents** to provide educational opportunities to children aged 6-14. The **RTE Act 2009** (effective 1 April 2010) operationalises Article 21A, with **Section 12(1)(c)** mandating the **25% quota** in private unaided schools. **Pramati Educational and Cultural Trust (2014)** held RTE inapplicable to **unaided minority schools** under **Article 30**.
Read source story → - Polity & Governance28 Apr 2026
Under which provision of the Domestic Violence Act 2005 are live-in relationships covered?
- A.Section 1(a) — definitions
- B.Section 2(f) — defines 'domestic relationship' to include those 'in the nature of marriage'
- C.Section 5(c) — protection orders
- D.Section 12(d) — residence orders
Show solution
Answer: B. Section 2(f) — defines 'domestic relationship' to include those 'in the nature of marriage'
**Section 2(f)** of the **Protection of Women from Domestic Violence Act, 2005** defines 'domestic relationship' to include those 'in the nature of marriage'. The Supreme Court in **D Velusamy v D Patchaiammal (2010)** laid down five conditions for what qualifies as 'in the nature of marriage', refined further in **Indra Sarma v V K V Sarma (2013)** with an eight-feature test.
Read source story → - Polity & Governance27 Apr 2026
Which of the following Articles of the Constitution were ADDED by the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 in connection with the Anti-Defection Law?
- A.Articles 102(2) and 191(2)
- B.Articles 75(1B), 164(1B), and 361B
- C.Articles 80 and 81
- D.Articles 105 and 194
Show solution
Answer: B. Articles 75(1B), 164(1B), and 361B
The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 ADDED Articles 75(1B), 164(1B), and 361B. Article 75(1B) provides that a member disqualified under the Tenth Schedule cannot be appointed a Union Minister; Article 164(1B) provides the same for State Ministers; Article 361B provides that such disqualified members cannot hold any remunerative political post. Articles 102(2) and 191(2) provide for disqualification of MPs and MLAs respectively under the Tenth Schedule but were added by the 52nd Amendment 1985 (along with the Tenth Schedule itself).
Read source story → - Polity & Governance27 Apr 2026
In Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu (1992), the Supreme Court of India struck down which Paragraph of the Tenth Schedule on the ground that it attempted to bar judicial review?
- A.Paragraph 1
- B.Paragraph 4
- C.Paragraph 7
- D.Paragraph 10
Show solution
Answer: C. Paragraph 7
In Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu (1992), the Supreme Court struck down PARAGRAPH 7 of the Tenth Schedule, which had attempted to bar judicial review of the Speaker's decisions on disqualification. The Court held that this paragraph was unconstitutional because it offended the Court's powers under Articles 136, 226, and 227. The rest of the Tenth Schedule was held constitutionally valid. The Court also ruled that while deciding on disqualification, the Speaker acts as a tribunal.
Read source story → - Polity & Governance25 Apr 2026
Under the Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2021, termination beyond 24 weeks for substantial foetal abnormalities requires approval from:
- A.Two Registered Medical Practitioners (RMPs)
- B.A Magistrate
- C.A Medical Board constituted by the State Government
- D.The Director of Health Services
Show solution
Answer: C. A Medical Board constituted by the State Government
Under the MTP (Amendment) Act, 2021, termination beyond 24 weeks for substantial foetal abnormalities requires approval from a Medical Board constituted by the State/UT Government. The Medical Board comprises a gynaecologist, paediatrician, radiologist/sonologist, and other notified specialists. Cases beyond 24 weeks for reasons other than foetal abnormalities (like the present minor's case) typically require court intervention.
Read source story →